TAMILNADU SI SUB INSPECTOR SELECTION EXAMINATION TAMILNADU SI SUB INSPECTOR SELECTION EXAMINATION MODEL QUESTION PAPERSSC CPO Sub Inspector Examination click here to read more: http://aimforhigh.blogspot.com/2010/06/tamilnadu-si-sub-inspector-selection.html#ixzz20fTCxPe5 more question bank and prevoius year question paper

TAMILNADU SI SUB INSPECTOR SELECTION EXAMINATION

TAMILNADU SI SUB INSPECTOR SELECTION EXAMINATION

MODEL QUESTION PAPERSSC CPO Sub Inspector Examination

1. ‘India Today’ is—
(A) A staggering mass of problems
(B) Former British India minus Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) A News magazine mainly devoted to current affairs
(D) The Union of India, a member of United Nations


2. The book ‘It was Five Past Midnight’ is on—
(A) Bhuj Earthquake
(B) Orissa Floods
(C) Andhra Cyclone
(D) Bhopal Gas Tragedy

3. Teen Bigha Corridor links—
(A) India and Pakistan
(B) India and China
(C) Bangladesh and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India

4. What is the field in which outstanding work may be recognized with the award of Pulitzer Prize ?
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Literature and Journalism
(C) International Understanding
(D) Environmental Studies

5. Vijay Stambha at Chittor was built by—
(A) Maharana Pratap
(B) Rana Sangram Singh
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Rana Ratan Singh

6. The device used to change the speed of an electric fan is—
(A) Amplifier
(B) Regulator
(C) Switch
(D) Rectifier

7. Namdhapa National Park is in—
(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Tripura
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

8. Which scripture was called his ‘mother’ by Gandhiji ?
(A) Ramayana
(B) The New Testament
(C) Bhagwat Gita
(D) The Holy Quran

9. On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Mandakini
(C) Dhauli Ganga
(D) Bhagirathi

10. Nobel Prize winning Indian Amartya Sen is known for his work in which area ?
(A) Physics
(B) Environmental Protection
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics

11. Who has been crowned Miss Universe, 2008 ?
(A) Miss Japan
(B) Miss Venezuela
(C) Miss Philippines
(D) Miss Malaysia

12. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India reached its highest level in 13 years on 27th July, 2008. It was—
(A) 11.75 per cent
(B) 11.85 per cent
(C) 12.00 per cent
(D) 12.05 per cent

13. The French Open, 2009 Men’s Singles was won by—
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Katarina Srebotnik

14. The venue of the Energy Summit, 2008 was—
(A) Jeddah
(B) Tehran
(C) Riyadh
(D) Tripoli

15. CTBT stands for—
(A) Continued Test Ban Treaty
(B) Continued Test Based Treatments
(C) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(D) Commercial Test Based Tariff

16. Asia Cup, 2008 final was played between—
(A) India and Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan and India
(C) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India

17. For which one of the following, M. S. Dhoni was chosen for the year 2007 ?
(A) Arjun Award
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(D) None of the above

18. Full form of MCA is—
(A) Ministry of Company Affairs
(B) Master of Computer Application
(C) Member Chartered Accountant
(D) Master of Commerce and Arts

19. China has hosted the—
(A) XXIX Olympic Games
(B) XXVIII Olympic Games
(C) XXVII Olympic Games
(D) XXX Olympic Games

20. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by—
(A) Edward Stone
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Edwin Lutyens
(D) Tarun Dutt

21. ‘The Quit India Movement’ was launched in 1942 in the month of—
(A) January
(B) March
(C) August
(D) December

22. Match the following—
Column-I
(A) Keshab Sen
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan
Column-II
1. Prarthana Samaj
2. Brahmo Samaj
3. Aligarh Movement
4. Arya Samaj
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 2 4 1

23. Who was the first English President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) George Yule
(B) William Wedderburn
(C) A. O. Hume
(D) Henry Cotton

24. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old Man of India’ ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai

25. Who wrote Akbarnama ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Birbal
(C) Abul Fazal
(D) Bhagavan Das

26. The pledge for ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was taken at the Congress Session of—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Lahore
(C) Allahabad
(D) Madras

27. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India ?
(A) 1950 A.D.
(B) 1945 A.D.
(C) 1959 A.D.
(D) 1962 A.D.

28. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) Mr. V. V. Giri

29. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words—‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?
(A) 28th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 52nd

30. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by—
(A) A person nominated by both the Houses of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of India

31. The Constitution of India came into force on—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1952
(C) 15 August, 1948
(D) 26 November, 1949

32. Who was the first Woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following ?
(A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit

33. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is—
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Select Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) None of these

34. Fog is an example of—
(A) Gas dispersed in gas
(B) Liquid dispersed in gas
(C) Solid dispersed in gas
(D) Solid dispersed in liquid

35. Which from the following is a landlocked sea ?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea

36. Match the following—
Sea Ports
(A) Bhatkal
(b) Alleppey
(c) Kakinada
(d) Tuticorin
States
1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3

37. Which one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall ?
(A) Isohypses
(B) Isohalines
(C) Isobars
(D) Isohyets

38. Equator represents—
(A) Line joining North and South poles
(B) Imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(C) A belt (ring) around the planet Saturn
(D) Axis of rotation of Earth

39. Global warming is expected to result in—
(A) Increase in level of sea
(B) Change in crop pattern
(C) Change in coast line
(D) All of the above

40. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by—
(A) UNESCO
(B) UNCED
(C) WHO
(D) UNICEF

41. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price elasticity is—
(A) Zero
(B) Positive
(C) Negative
(D) Imaginary number

42. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is—
(A) The cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
(B) The cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
(C) The actual cost incurred
(D) The next best alternative output sacrificed

43. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as—
(A) Economic rent
(B) Net rent
(C) Quasi-rent
(D) Super-normal rent

44. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Minister for Planning & Development
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Minister for Rural & Community Development

45. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ?
(A) Savings increases
(B) Lending decreases
(C) Cost of production increases
(D) Return on capital increases

46. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ?
(A) Value Added Method
(B) Income Method
(C) Investment Method
(D) Expenditure Method

47. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a—
(A) Labour Surplus Economy
(B) Capital Surplus Economy
(C) Developed Economy
(D) Developing Economy

48. Which one of the following would not constitute an economic activity ?
(A) A teacher teaching students in his class
(B) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home
(D) A teacher providing consultancy services from his residence

49. The Finance Commission—
(A) Draws up Five Year Plans
(B) Formulates Monetary Policy
(C) Recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(D) Adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States

50. Net National Product of a country is—
(A) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(B) GDP plus net income from abroad
(C) GNP minus net income from abroad
(D) GNP minus depreciation allowances

51. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of—
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Spleen

52. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is—
(A) 82
(B) 92
(C) 72
(D) 98

53. EEG records the activity of—
(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Brain
(D) Muscles

54. The colour of cow’s milk is slight yellow due to the presence of—
(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Riboflavin
(C) Ribulose
(D) Carotene

55. Which one of these is a communicat disease ?
(A) Diabetes
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Arthritis
(D) Cancer

56. The concertration of which of following decreases in anaemia ?
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Collagen
(C) Hyoglobin
(D) Myosin

57. Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air ?
(A) Plague
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera

58. Cereals are a rich source of—
(A) Starch
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose

59. Aspirin is common name of—
(A) Salicylic Acid
(B) Salicylate
(C) Methyl Salicylate
(D) Acetyl Salicylic Acid

60. Small Pox is caused by—
(A) Rubeola Virus
(B) Variola Virus
(C) Varicella
(D) Myxovirus

61. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the following is also inflammable ?
(A) Helium
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen

62. Aerobic respiration process requires—
(A) Heat
(B) Water
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sunlight

63. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Cadmium
(C) Sodium
(D) Lithium

64. Ozone consists of—
(A) Oxygen only
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Carbon
(D) Oxygen and Carbon

65. Which of the following liquids has the least density ?
(A) Fresh water
(B) Salt water
(C) Petrol
(D) Mercury

66. Which of the following principle is used to produce ‘low-temperatures’ ?
(A) Super conductivity
(B) Joule-Kelvin effect
(C) Thermo-electric effect
(D) Adiabatic demagnetization

67. A photo-electric cell converts—
(A) Mechanical energy to electric energy
(B) Heat energy to mechanical energy
(C) Light energy to chemical energy
(D) Light energy to electrical energy

68. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building—
(A) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier
(B) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier
(C) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time
(D) Depends on the composition of the stone

69. Pulsars are—
(A) Stars moving towards the Earth
(B) Stars moving away from Earth
(C) Rapidly spinning stars
(D) High temperature stars

70. Biggest planet of solar system is—
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Saturn
(D) Jupiter

71. The ‘National School of Drama’ is situated in which of the following cities ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Kolkata

72. When was our National Anthem first sung and where ?
(A) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
(B) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(C) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
(D) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta

73. The ozone hole that has been detected lies in the atmosphere above—
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Antarctica
(C) India
(D) Alaska

74. Brain drain—
(A) Is a disease
(B) Refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions
(C) Is fruitless expenditure of scientific and industrial research
(D) Refers to emigration of skilled persons

75. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 14 

READ MORE - TAMILNADU SI SUB INSPECTOR SELECTION EXAMINATION TAMILNADU SI SUB INSPECTOR SELECTION EXAMINATION MODEL QUESTION PAPERSSC CPO Sub Inspector Examination click here to read more: http://aimforhigh.blogspot.com/2010/06/tamilnadu-si-sub-inspector-selection.html#ixzz20fTCxPe5 more question bank and prevoius year question paper

List of Top 100 Engineering Colleges in Andhra Pradesh

Rank	College Code	College Name	Avg. Rank
1	OUCE	O U COLLEGE OF ENGG. HYDERABAD,HYDERABAD	9235
2	JNTH	JNTU COLLEGE OF ENGG. HYDERABAD,HYDERABAD	9764
3	JNTHMB	JNTUH-5 YEAR INTEGRATED MBA SELF FINANCE,KUKATPALLY	10457
4	JNTHMT	JNTUH-5 YEAR INTEGRATED M.TECH SELF FINANCE,KUKATPALLY	11074
5	SVUC	S V U COLLEGE OF ENGG. TIRUPATHI,TIRUPATHI	13025
6	JNTK	JNTU COLLEGE OF ENGG. KAKINADA,KAKINADA	13659
7	JNTA	JNTU COLLEGE OF ENGG. ANANTAPUR,ANANTAPUR	14315
8	AUCE	A U COLLEGE OF ENGG. VISAKHAPATNAM,VISAKHAPATNAM	14851
9	CBIT	CHAITANYA BHARATHI INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY,GANDIPET	16810
10	GVPE	GAYATHRI VIDYA PARISHAD COLL. OF ENGINEERING,VISAKHAPATNAM	20480
11	JNTV	JNTU COLLEGE OF ENGINNEERING VIZIANAGARAM,VIZIANAGARAM	21017
12	AUEWSF	A U COLLEGE OF ENGG FOR WOMEN,VISAKHAPATNAM	21406
13	JNTP	JNTU COLLEGE OF ENGG. PULIVENDULA,PULIVENDULA	23143
14	MVSR	M V S R ENGINEERING COLLEGE,NADERGUL	24011
15	KUWL	KU COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY,WARANGAL	24057
16	JNKR	JNTU COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING KARIMNAGAR,KARIMNAGAR	24553
17	GPRE	G P R ENGINEERING. COLLEGE,KURNOOL	26281
18	KITS	KAKATIYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCI,WARANGAL	27298
19	MGIT	MAHATMA GANDHI INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY,GANDIPET	28892
20	GNTW	G NARAYNAMMA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCI,RAYADURG	29176
21	GRRR	GOKARAJU RANGARAJU INSTITUTE OF ENGG. AND TECH.,MIYAPUR	29594
22	OUCT	O U COLLEGE OF TECH. HYDERABAD,HYDERABAD	29648
23	AUCPSF	AU SCHOOL OF PHARMACY -SELF FINANCE,VISAKHAPATNAM	31433
24	CVRH	CVR COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING,IBRAHIMPATAN	31472
25	ANIL	ANIL NEERUKONDA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCI,BHEEMUNIPATNAM	34253
26	KUCE	K U COLLEGE OF ENGG. KOTHAGUDEM,KOTHAGUDEM	34877
27	BREW	BHOJREDDY ENGINEERING COLLEGE FOR WOMEN,SAIDABAD	35569
28	RVJC	R V R AND J C COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING,GUNTUR	36692
29	SRKR	S R K R ENGINEERING COLLEGE,BHIMAVARAM	37509
30	MJCT	M J COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY,BANJARA HILLS	38875
31	BVRI	B V RAJU INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY,NARSAPUR	40416
32	LBCE	LAKIREDDY BALIREDDY COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING,MYLAVARAM	42147
33	GMRI	G M R INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY,RAJAM	42405
34	ANCUSF	ANU COLLEGE OF ENGG TECHNOLOGY-SELF FINANCE,GUNTUR	43403
35	MVRG	M V G R COLLEGE OF ENGINEERNG,VIZIANAGARAM	43986
36	JBIT	JB INSTITUTE OF ENGG. AND TECHNOLOGY,YENKAPALLY	44455
37	IARE	INSTITUTE OF AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING,DUNDIGAL	44846
38	CRRE	SIR C R R COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING,ELURU	45311
39	GNIT	GURUNANAK INST. OF TECHNOLOGY,IBRAHIMPATAN	45681
40	PPSV	PRASAD V POTLURI SIDDHARTHA INSTT OF TECHNOLOGY,VIJAYAWADA	47101
41	CABP	COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING,BAPATLA	48164
42	GDLV	GUDLAVALLERU ENGINEERING COLLEGE,GUDLAVALLERU	48549
43	RGIT	RAJIV GANDHI MEMORIAL COLLEGE OF ENGG. AND TECH.,NANDYAL	49049
44	CVSR	ANURAG GRP OF INSTNS- CVSR COLL OF ENGG,GHATKESAR	49944
45	KMIT	KESHAV MEMORIAL INST. OF TECHNOLOGY,NARAYANAGUDA	51611
46	BECB	BAPATLA ENGINEERING COLLEGE,BAPATLA	51883
47	PRAG	PRAGATI ENGINEERING COLLEGE,PEDDAPURAM	53191
48	MRIP	MALLA REDDY INIST. OF PHARM. SCI.,MEDCHAL	53843
49	PYDA	PYDAH COLLEGE OF ENGG. AND TECHNOLOGY,VISAKHAPATNAM	53957
50	SANK	AUDHISANKARA COLLEGE OF ENGG. AND TECHNOLOGY,GUDUR	54253
51	MICT	D VENKATARAMANA AND DR.HIMASEKHAR MIC COLL OF TECH,KANCHIKACHERLA	54303
52	INDU	SRI INDU COLLEGE OF ENGG. AND TECHNOLOGY,IBRAHIMPATAN	54937
53	SRHP	S R ENGINEERING COLLEGE,HASANPARTHY	56386
54	GVPW	GAYATHRI VIDYA PARISHAD COLL OF ENGG FOR WOMEN,VISAKHAPATNAM	57465
55	NREC	NALLAMALLA REDDY ENGINEERING COLLEGE,GHATKESAR	58125
56	AITS	ANNAMACHARYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCIS,RAJAMPETA	58487
57	MHVR	MAHAVEER INSTITUTE OF SCI. AND TECHNOLOGY,BANDLAGUDA	58674
58	MITS	MADANAPALLY INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCI,MADANAPALLE	59349
59	SKUASF	SRI KRISHNADEVARAYA UNIV.COLL.OF ENG.- SELF FINANCE,ANANTAPUR	60684
60	CMRK	C M R COLLEGE OF ENGG. AND TECHNOLOGY.,KANDLAKOYA	61117
61	GRCP	GOKARAJU RANGARAJU COLLEGE OF PHARMACY,BACHUPALLI	61131
62	RAGU	RAGHU ENGINEERING COLLEGE,BHEEMUNIPATNAM	62353
63	MREC	MALLAREDDY ENGINEERING COLLEGE,MEDCHAL	62741
64	JNTM	JNTU COLLEGE OF ENGG MANTHANI,MANTHANI	63426
65	KSRM	K S R M COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING,KADAPA	65854
66	AUCP	AU COLLEGE OF ENGG. SCHOOL OF PHARMACY,VISAKHAPATNAM	66167
67	SRKI	S R K INST. OF TECHNOLOGY,VIJAYAWADA	66687
68	ADTP	ADITYA ENGINEERING COLLEGE,PEDDAPURAM	67259
69	KSEK	ARORAS TECHNOLOGYNOLOGICAL RESEARCH INST.,PARVATHAPUR	67566
70	ACEG	A C E ENGINEERING COLLEGE,GHATKESAR	67615
71	NBKR	NBKR INSTITUTE OF SCI. AND TECHNOLOGY,VAKADU	67790
72	JOGI	JOGINPALLY B R ENGINEERING COLLEGE,YENKAPALLY	68149
73	SDTN	SIDDHARTH INSTITUTE OF ENGG. AND TECHNOLOGY,PUTTUR	68495
74	VISW	SHRI VISHNU ENGG. COLLEGE FOR WOMEN,BHIMAVARAM	68672
75	ADIT	ADITYA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND MGMT,TEKKALI	68977
76	ALIT	ANDHRA LOYOLA INSTT OF ENGG AND TECHNOLOGY,VIJAYAWADA	69058
77	KUCP	K U COLLEGE OF PHARMACEUTICAL SCIENCES,WARANGAL	70154
78	DVRC	D V R COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY,KANDI	70166
79	RITV	RAGHU INST. OF TECHNOLOGY,BHEEMUNIPATNAM	70875
80	ASIT	AUDI SANKARA INST OF TECHNOLOGY,GUDUR	71485
81	PNRP	PRATAB NARENDAR REDDY COLL. OF PHARMACY,SHAMSHABAD	72041
82	JMTS	JYOTHISHMATHI INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCI.,KARIMNAGAR	72317
83	PCEK	G.PULLAIAH COLL. OF ENGG. AND TECHNOLOGY,KURNOOL	72365
84	AROR	AURORAS ENGINEERING COLLEGE,BHONGIR	73987
85	CMRM	CMR INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY,KANDLAKOYA	74385
86	NARN	NARAYANA ENGINEERING COLLEGE,NELLORE	74536
87	INTL	INTELL ENGINEERING COLLEGE,ANANTAPUR	75203
88	GIER	GODAVARI INSTITUTE OF ENGG. AND TECHNOLOGY,RAJAHMUNDRY	75294
89	VRSP	K V S R SIDDHARTHA COLLEGE OF PHARMACEUTICAL SCI.S,VIJAYAWADA	75592
90	CEVP	CHAITANYA ENGINEERING COLLEGE,VISAKHAPATNAM	76958
91	SREC	SANTHIRAM ENGINEERING COLLEGE,NANDYAL	77173
92	HORZ	HORIZON COLLEGE OF PHARMACY,KEESARA	77758
93	DCET	DECCAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY,DARUSSALAM	78635
94	CLPT	CHALAPATHI INSTITUTE OF PHARMACEUTICAL SCI.,GUNTUR	79050
95	KTKM	KAMALA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY AND SCIENCE,HUZURABAD	80337
96	GCTC	GEETANJALI COLLEGE OF ENGG. AND TECHNOLOGY.,KEESARA	80377
97	MRET	MALLAREDDY INST. OF ENGG AND TECHNOLOGY,MAISAMMAGUDA	80613
98	MLID	M L R INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY,DUNDIGAL	81449
99	NRIT	NRI INSTT OF TECHNOLOGY,GUNTUR	81586
100	KUSH	KAUSHIK COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING,VISAKHAPATNAM	81854\

list from
http://www.totaleamcet.com/Top100.asp

READ MORE - List of Top 100 Engineering Colleges in Andhra Pradesh

4th and 6th Semester - April/May 2012 EXAM RESULTS - Anna University

EXPECTED TIME OF ANNOUNCEMENT: 3rd or 4th week of July, 2012.



SITES THAT ARE EXPECTED TO PUBLISH THE RESULTS: (Will be updated once result announced)


Results Links :

SERVER 1 - http://results.vidyarthiplus.com
SERVER 2- http://result.annauniv.edu/
SERVER 3 - http://results.webdunia.com/
SERVER 4 - http://www.worldcolleges.info/
SERVER 5 - http://www.schools9.com
SERVER 6 - http://www.kraniumtechnologies.com/

READ MORE - 4th and 6th Semester - April/May 2012 EXAM RESULTS - Anna University

Mahindra Satyam Placement Paper Pattern 2010 : Mahindra Satyam Placement Papers

Mahindra Satyam Placement Paper Pattern 2010 : Mahindra Satyam Placement Papers

Hi, guys i am Rohan from Malla Reddy Engineering College of Engineering completed BTECH in the stream of IT.

Selection Procedure:
1) Written Test
2) Technical Round
3) HR Round

1) Written Test: Around 1000 ppl attended for written test, total 54 were furthered to technical round. It comprises of total 6 sections
a)Logical Reasoning
b)Verbal Reasoning
c)Quantitavive
d)english-1
e)english-2
f)english-3

Total 100 questions 60 min

Q1.A+B+C+D is57,average weight of A+B is 43,Average weight ofC+D is 67,find out the ratio of students of section A and D?

Q2:There is a question on age?

Q3: The the ratio of the salary of ramesh and gautam one year ago is 7:9,the ratio of their income one year ago to this yearare 4:5and 3:4.The sum of income of both at present is 14000.find out the income of gautam?

Q4:if today 21st may 2004 is a suday then what day is on 21 may 1994?

Q5:IF one person travelat a speed of 3m/sec then how much he travels in one hour 40 minutes?

Q 6:There is one ques like we have to add if e=0, some values are given from which we have to find out the value for O

GOGLE

+YAHOO

————

76547 ?

Q7:There is a question based on figure ?this is common to all sets

Q8:There is a question on some input given to a machine which performs acc to a pattern described?

Q9:the probability of students appeared for CAT is 4/5 and for MAT is 2/5.then find out the prob. that student appeared for at least one test

READ MORE - Mahindra Satyam Placement Paper Pattern 2010 : Mahindra Satyam Placement Papers

Infosys Latest Placement Paper Jan 2011

Infosys Latest Placement Paper Jan 2011

1)APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 70 ; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section its around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. no negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test.

Analytical & Logical reasoning:(30 question : 40 minutes)
English section: (40 question : 35 minutes)

Analytical reasoning

1. A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as brothers but each girl has
twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters are there?
Ans: 4 boys and 3 girls.

2. In a soap company a soap is manufactured with 11 parts. For making one soap you will get 1 part as scrap.
At the end of the day u have 251 such scraps. From that how many soaps can be manufactured?
Ans: 25.

3. There is a 5digit no. 3 pairs of sum is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times the first one. 3 rd digit is 3 less than the second.4 th digit is 4 more than the second one. Find the digit.
Ans : 25296.

4. Every day a cyclist meets a train at a particular crossing. The road is straight before the crossing and both are traveling in the same direction. The cyclist travels with a speed of 10 Kmph. One day the cyclist comes late by 25 min. and meets the train 5km before the crossing. What is the speed of the train?
Ans: 60 kmph

5. Two twins have certain peculiar characteristics. One of them always lies on Monday, Wednesday, and
Friday. The other always lies on Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays. On the other days they tell the truth.
You are given a conversation.

Person A– today is Sunday my name is Anil
Person B — today is Tuesday, my name is Bill
What day is today?
Ans: Today is Tuesday

Directions 6:10 In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Answers 6-10

6 E. 7. C 8. B 9.E 10. D

Directions 11-15: Each problem consists of a problem followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Select your answer according to whether:
(A) statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question

(B) statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question

(C) both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient

(D) each statement alone is sufficient

(E) statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question

11. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?

1. x + y = 20
2. x = y²

1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.

Ans: C

12. Fifty percent of the articles in a certain magazine are written by staff members. Sixty percent of the articles are
on current affairs. If 75 percent of the articles on current affairs are written by staff members with more than 5
years experience of journalism, how many of the articles on current affairs are written by journalists with more
than 5 years experience?

1. 20 articles are written by staff members.
2. Of the articles on topics other than current affairs, 50 percent are by staff members with less than 5 years experience.

1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.

Ans: A

13. Is xy > 0 ?

1. x/y < 0
2. x + y < 0

1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.

Ans: A

14 One number, n, is selected at random from a set of 10 integers. What is the probability that ½ n + 13 = 0 ?

1. The largest integer in the set is 13.
2. The arithmetic mean of the set is zero.

1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.

Ans: E

15. Is w a whole number?

1. 3w is an odd number.
2. 2w is an even number.

1. A.
2. B.
3. C.
4. D.
5. E.

Ans: B

Directions (Question 16 to 19 ) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

IV. i) There are six friends A,B,C,D,E and F

ii) Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Vollyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis and Polo

iii) Each owns a different coloured car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.

iv) D plays Polo and owns a yellow coloured car

v) C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow coloured car

vi) E owns a white car and plays Badminton

vii) B does not play Tennis, he owns a red coloured car.

viii) A plays Cricket and owns a black car

16. Who plays Volleyball ?

A) B B) C C) F D) Data inadequate E) None of these

Ans: B

17. Which coloured car F owns ?

A) Green B) Blue C) Either Green or Blue D) Data inadequate E) None of these

Ans: B

18. Which of the following combinations of colour of car and game played is not correct ?

A) Yellow – Polo B) Green – Tennis C) Black – Cricket D) Red- Hockey E) None of these

Ans: B

19. In a group of six women, there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija
and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja
and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them
are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and violinist ?

A) Jalaja B) Shailaja C) Tanuja D) Pooja

Ans: C

20. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked
10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his
starting point?

(A) South (B) North (C) East (D) West (E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21.Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes
7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house?

(A) 5 km (B) 7 km (C) 2 km (D) 14 km (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Laxman went 15 kms from my house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He then turned east and walked
25 kms and finally turning left covered 20kms. How far was he from his house.

(A) 5 kms (B) 10 kms (C) 40 kms (D) 80 kms (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. The door of Aditya’s house faces the east. From the back side of his house, he walks straight 50 metres, then
turns to the right and walks 50 metres, then turns towards left and stops after walking 25 metres . Now Aditya
is in which direction from the starting point?

(A) South-East (B) North-East (C) South- West (D) North-West (E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R, and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R who is facing
west. Then Q is facing ?

(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards north-east. In which direction does its hour
hand point at 1.30 p.m?

(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these

Ans: C

26. A man walks 30 metres towards South. Then , turning to his right, he walks 30 metres . Then turning to his left,
he walks 20 metres. again he turns to his left and walks 30 metres . How far is he from his initial position?

A. 20 metres B. 30 metres C.60 metres D. 80 metres E None of these

Ans: E

Directions 27-30 :The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favorite style of music. Use this information to answer the following questions to the nearest whole percentage.

27. What percentage of respondents under 31 , indicated that blues in their favorite style?

A. 7.1 B. 7.6 C. 8.3 D. 14.1 E. 7.2

Ans: B

28. What percentage of respondents aged 21-30 indicated that jazz is their favorite style?

A. 64 % B. 60% C. 75% D. 36% E. 46%

Ans: A

29. What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is heir favorite style of music?

A. 6 % B. 8% C. 22% D. 4% E. 11%

Ans: E

30. What percentage of the total sample were aged21-30?

A. 31 % B. 23% C. 25% D. 14% E. 30%

Ans: C

Verbal Ability Test (40 Questions in 35 minutes)

Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the groundbreaking, long-term research of the great conservationist, Jane Goodall.

Jane Goodall was born in London, England, on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday, her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course Jane’s life would take. To this day, Jubilee sits in a chair in Jane’s London home. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time, in the early 1940s, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.

As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school, and then worked for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to visit Kenya, she worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She was 23 years old.

Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey soon realized that Jane was the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time. She expressed her interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them, rather than studying dead animals through paleontology.

Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would not approve their plan. At the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the wilds of Africa alone. But Jane’s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be alone. Finally, the authorities gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and begin her study

In July of 1960, Jane and her mother arrived at Gombe National Park in what was then called Tanganyika and is now called Tanzania. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it took months for them to get used to her presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal. Little by little, she was able to enter their world.

At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As time passed, she was able to move her observation point closer to them while still using camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them. It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane, and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild. Jane named all of the chimpanzees that she studied, stating in her journals that she felt they each had a unique personality.

One of the first significant observations that Jane made during the study was that chimpanzees make and use tools, much like humans do, to help them get food. It was previously thought that humans alone used tools. Also thanks to Jane’s research, we now know that chimps eat meat as well as plants and fruits. In many ways, she has helped us to see how chimpanzees and humans are similar. In doing so, she has made us more sympathetic toward these creatures, while helping us to better understand ourselves.

The study started by Jane Goodall in 1960 is now the longest field study of any animal species in their natural habitat. Research continues to this day in Gombe and is conducted by a team of trained Tanzanians.

Jane’s life has included much more than just her study of the chimps in Tanzania. She pursued a graduate degree while still conducting her study, receiving her Ph.D. from Cambridge University in 1965. In 1984, she received the J. Paul Getty Wildlife Conservation Prize for “helping millions of people understand the importance of wildlife conservation to life on this planet.” She has been married twice: first to a photographer and then to the director of National Parks. She has one son.

Dr. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly 40 years. She has published many scientific articles, has written two books, and has won numerous awards for her groundbreaking work. The Jane Goodall Institute for Wildlife Research, Education, and Conservation was founded in 1977 in California but moved to the Washington, D.C., area in 1998. Its goal is to take the actions necessary to improve the environment for all living things.

Dr. Goodall now travels extensively, giving lectures, visiting zoos and chimp sanctuaries, and talking to young people involved in environmental education. She is truly a great conservationist and an amazing human being.

Read this sentence from the article.

1. ‘But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal’. What is an antonym for the word focused?

1. bothered
2. tired
3. disinterested
4. concerned

Ans: C

2. What is the author’s purpose in writing this article?

1. to entertain the reader with stories about chimpanzees
2. to inform the reader of the importance of wildlife conservation
3. to warn the reader about the challenges of working in Africa
4. to describe the work and life of Jane Goodall.
Ans: D

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons Dr. Leakey chose Jane to work with him?

1. She knew a lot about Africa.
2. She knew a lot about African wildlife.
3. She earned the money to travel to Africa on her own.
4. She was interested in studying animals in the wild.
Ans: C

4. Which of the following is NOT true of chimpanzees?

1. Chimpanzees are often comfortable with strangers right away.
2. Chimpanzees eat meat as well as plants and fruit.
3. Chimpanzees use tools to help them get food.
4. Different chimpanzees have different personalities.

Ans: A

5. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly forty years. What does authority mean?

1. an intelligent person
2. one who studies animals
3. a scientist
4. an expert
Ans: B

Read this sentence from the article.

Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

There are some men who seem to be always on the lookout for trouble and, to tell the truth, they are seldom disappointed. Listening to such men one would think that this world is one of the stormiest and most disagreeable places. Yet, after all it is not such a bad place and the difficulty is often in the man who is too thin- skinned. On the other hand, the man who goes out expecting people to be like himself, kind and brotherly, will be surprised at the kindness he meets even in the most unlike quarters. A smile is apt to be met met with a respective smile while the sneer is just as apt to provoke a snarl. Men living in the same neighborhood may live vastly different lives. But it is not the neighborhood which is quarrelsome, but the man within us. And we have it in out power to change our neighborhood into a pleasant one by simply changing our own ways.

6. The passage is about
A) our disagreeable and hostile world
B) a kindly and pleasant world
C) our different and unresponsive world
D) the world and what one makes of it.
Ans: D

7. “…………..they are seldom disappointed”. The statement denotes that such men
A) welcome difficulties as a morale booster
B) do not have face any trouble
C) manage to keep unruffled in the face of discomforts
D) generally do not fail to come across troubles
Ans: D

8. The author’s own view of the world is that it is
A) one of the loveliest and quietest places
B) an unpleasant and turbulent place
C) one’s own excessive sensitivity that makes it a bad place
D) a sordid place for those who suffer in life
Ans: C

9. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the expression ‘thin-skinned’ as sed in the passage?
A) Insensitive
B) Intelligent
C) Awkward
D) Obstinate
Ans: A

10. “On the other hand…………. unlikely quarter” The statement shows that people’s reaction to our attitude is
A) Generally indifferent
B) surprisingly responsive
C) often adverse
D) mainly favourable

Ans: B

Directions 11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11.For a few seconds, Madan was………….blinded by the powerful lights of the oncoming car

A) heavily B) largely C) greatly D) powerfully E) totally
Ans: E

12. His interest in the study of human behavior is indeed very…………..

A) strong B) large C) broad D) vast E) deep
Ans: E

13. The police have…………….a complaint against four persons

A) entered B) lodged C) registered D) noted E) received
Ans: C

14. The improvement made by changes in the system was ………………..and did not warrant the large expenses.

A) large B) small C) minute D) marginal E) uncertain
Ans: D

15. The man who is……………………..hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither.

A) persistently B) constantly C) insistently D) consistently E) perpetually
Ans: A

16. He is too……………….to be deceived easily

A) strong B) modern C) kind D) honest E) intelligent
Ans: E

17. The Manager gave her his ….. that the complaint would be investigated

A. assurance B. suggestion C. avowal D. support
Ans: A

18. I am feeling …… better today.

A. rather B. too C. fairly D. very
Ans: C

Direction Questions19-26: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inference. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

mark your answer as :

A. if the inference is ‘ definitely true’ i.e. , it directly follows from the facts given in the passage

B. if the inference is ‘ probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given

C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false

D. if you think the inference is ‘ probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and

E. if you think inference is ‘ definitely false’ i.e. , it contradicts the given facts.

Passage I

Urban services have not expanded fast enough to cope with urban expansion. Low investment allocation have tended top be under spent. Both public( e. g. water and sewage) and private (e.g. low-income area housing) infrastructure quality has declined. this impact of the environment in which children live and the supporting services available to them when they fall ill, seems clear. The decline in average food availability and the rise in absolute poverty point in the same satisfactory direction

19. There is nothing to boast about urban services
Ans: A

20. The public transport system is in the hands of private sector.
Ans: C

21. Birth rate is higher in Urban areas compared to rural areas.
Ans: C

22. Low-cost urban housing is one of the priorities
Ans: B

23 The environment around plays an important role on the health status.
Ans: A

Passage II

Though the state cultivate only 3.2 lakh tonnes of mangoes, they are of premium quality and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes. the government has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper . An experiment which was done in this regard last year has proved successful.

24. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports.
Ans: A

25. The state also exports good quality grapes
Ans: C

26. The state also cultivates a large number of medium quality mangoes.
Ans: E

Direction27-32: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is ‘no error’

27. I going there / will not solve / this complicated problem / No error

A B C D
Ans : A

28. You can get /all the information you want / in this book / No error

A B C D
Ans : A

29. The bus could not / ascend the steep hill / because it was in the wrong gears / No error
A B C D
Ans : C

30.No stronger / a figure than his / is prescribed in the history / No error
A B C D
Ans : C

31. most people would have /attended the union meeting / if they had / longer notice of it / No error

A B C D E
Ans : D

32. And though one did not / quite believe his claim / one saw no harm / in granting him permission / No error

A B C D E
Ans: E

Directions33 : In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is ‘No correction required’

33. The problems of translation are still remain.

A. are remain. B. will remained C. will still remain. D. No Correction required
Ans : C

34. It is ten years since I have begun living here

A. begun B. had begun C. began D. No Correction required
Ans : C

35. Education is a strong instrument for moldings the character of the young.

A. striking B. powerful C. potent D. No Correction required
Ans : B

36. He gave the I.A.S. examination in all seriousness.

A. appeared B. took C. undertook D. No Correction required
Ans: B

37. He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.

A. mind blank B. eyes covered C. hands full D. No Correction required
Ans: D

38. The young hikers went as far as they finally got lost in the valley.

A. so far that B. too far that C. so far as that D. No Correction required
Ans: A

39. He stopped to work an hour ago

A. to working B. to have worked C. working D. No Correction required
Ans : C

40. The fact finding committee has so far not made any advancement.

A. progress B. improvement C. stride D. No Correction required
Ans: A

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Mahindra Satyam Placement Papers 2011

Mahindra Satyam Placement Papers 2011

The recruitment is through written test, group discussion & interview. There is Online written test which consists of Technical as well as Aptitude section. There are 60 questions for which 40 Mins is given. In Aptitude section, there are 75 questions which are from subjects like mathematics & reasoning. The technical section consists of 25 questions which are based on computer fundamentals like finding outputs etc.

1.Calender Problem if 2nd January 2005 is Monday what is the day of 2nd January 1895 ?

2.One question on Time and Work

3.One question is on arrange seating on a table

4.One question on Ratio Propotion

5.complete Series 2, 4, 6, 5,?, 9, 8, 10, 12

6.A question on probability when a die and coin tossed what is the probability of getting a head and 6 on top.

7.How many 7s are there in the following series which are not immediately following by 3 but immediately preceded by 8?
8 9 8 7 6 2 2 6 3 2 6 9 7 3 2 8 7 2 7 7 8 7 3 7 7 9 4

8.How many members are there between 1 to 100 which are divisible by 9 and the sum of two digits is 9?

9.A and B invested money together in a business and share of capital of A is 1/4th that of B. If they incurr a loss of Rs.500 then loss for B is

10.If the compound interest (compounded Yearly) on a certain sum for 2 years at 3% is Rs.101.50 then what will be the corresponding simple interest?

11.In a race of 4Kms A beats B by 100m or 25 seconds, then time taken by A is

12.The age of Ritu’s mother is 6 times that of Ritu’s age. After 6 years it will be 3 times that of Ritu’s age. what is Ritu’s present age?

13.Ten years ago A was half of B’s Age. If ratio of their present ages is 3:4 then what is the total of their present ages?

Technical Questions

G.D. TOPICS :

1.Should Mobiles Banned in Colleges or Not

2.which state is best for IT Industry ?

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Habib Bank Branches Finder for different Countries

Finding bank branches is always a difficult task to adhere to. It’s hard to locate branches in your locality as the exact co-ordinates are missing and in case of such an event, one has to face various problems in this regard. Habib Bank Branches are located in a series of localities as it is one of the giant banking networks in Pakistan. Due to this, many people also faced the same issue as mentioned above.

Locating Habib Bank branches is not a difficult task anymore as the bank has created a new segment in their official website where one can discover and locate the available and operating branches in every region of operations.

Habib Bank branches can be located using the simple and easy to use web page segment which has various segments, the two options that are available in a drop down manner include searching for a world-wide presence of Habib Bank branches, while on the other end one can locate Habib Bank branches as per the city in which they reside. Furthermore, it also allows you to locate Habib Bank branches and ATM’s separately to fulfill all needs of its customers and potential customers.

Thus, Habib Bank branches are spread over a wide network, yet, due to its online location finder one can easily solve the problem of locating an operating branch in their locality.

For more Info Visit : HBL

READ MORE - Habib Bank Branches Finder for different Countries